This part confuses me. Wouldn’t this be a good thing?
“Worsening the situation, 45pc of landlords decided to sell their properties in the wake of the announcement significantly reducing the amount of accommodation on offer and further pushing up prices.”
Yes, the number of rental properties declines, but that would mean home ownership would increase, right? I know my bias is toward the North American model of a multiyear fixed rate mortgage. I also know that the model exists in Europe about essentially interest only mortgage where you never actually pay down your mortgage, but your interest payments are essentially your housing costs.
How does it work in Argentina? How do people buy houses? Are they instead all cash transactions or do mortgage schemes exist there in some form?